The Qur'an says that the Injeel (Muslim's Arabic name for the New Testament) is the word of Allah. They however, say that it's been changed, or corrupted, which is why Allah had to send the Qur'an through Muhhammed. It's also why many of them haven't read the Injeel. So how can a Christian respond to a Muslim who says, "Yes, the Injeel is the word of God and Jesus was a prophet, but it has been changed!"?
My wife with a Chinese Muslim who owned the Muslim restaurant in the background. We regularly ate here for a couple of years. |
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Logical Response
Simply ask questions.
"When was the Injeel (NT) corruptued?"
"How was it been corrupted?"
"Who corrupted it?"
"What parts are corrupted? Has the whole Injeel been changed?"
Muslims generally won't have answers to these questions.
You can then ask,"Did Muhammad tell Muslims to read the Bible in the Qur'an? Did he say it was the word of Allah in the Qur'an?" The answers to these questions are yes, and if you want check the first post in this series and you'll see the verses from Qur'an which claim this.
The next statement to follow up the answer to these questions is, "If Muhammad said to read the Bible and didn't make any mention of it being changed or corrupted, then it must have been changed after Muhammad."
That then leads into the "Historical Response" which shows that the Bible hasn't been changed before or after Muhammad.
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